homebrewandbeer.com

I've been wondering about this for some time, and although I've done a bit of research (including on this forum), I'm even more confused. Perhaps my complete lack of scientific knowledge is to blame.

So, let's say I make a beer with a 4 litre boil, topped up to 23 litres) and also a beer with an 8 litre boil (also topped to 23 litres). If I use exactly the same hops, in the same amounts boiled for the same time, which of the beers is going to provide better utilisation of the hops? To put it another way, if I use a bigger boil, can I use less hops to get the same result as I would from a smaller boil using more hops? Or vice versa? And no I haven't been drinking............

8L boil will need less hops - hops are utilized better in worts with lower gravity

not sure of the chemical explanation why - i guess read palmer (http://www.howtobrew.com) and you'll find out

Make up an 8L boil to approximately the gravity of the finished beer (if possible) then add the remaining fermentables at the end of the boil, dissolve and transfer to the fermentor.